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ASCP exam preparation (USA · MLS / MLT) – page 7

1200 practice MCQs for the ASCP medical laboratory exam. Level: Advanced.

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Q121EasyAntibody screen & identification

For a patient with sickle cell disease starting chronic transfusion, many programs give units matched for which antigens to prevent alloimmunization?

Answer: C. C, E and K, in addition to ABO and D

Anti-C, anti-E and anti-K are the most frequent alloantibodies in these patients, so prophylactic matching lowers alloimmunization.

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Q122EasyAntibody screen & identification

Many laboratories omit the immediate-spin and room-temperature phases in the antibody screen mainly because:

Answer: C. These phases mostly detect insignificant cold antibodies

Cold-reactive IgM antibodies such as anti-M, anti-P1 and anti-Lea are found in these phases and are rarely significant.

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Q123EasyBlood components & storage

Apheresis platelets stored at 20–24 °C with agitation, and with no additional bacterial risk-control step, expire after:

Answer: B. 5 days

Conventional room-temperature platelets have a 5-day shelf life because of the risk of bacterial growth. Seven-day dating is allowed only when an extra bacterial risk-control strategy is used.

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Q124EasyBlood components & storage

Four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate, used for urgent warfarin reversal, contains factors:

Answer: B. II, VII, IX and X

Four-factor PCC contains the vitamin K–dependent factors II, VII, IX and X (plus proteins C and S). These are the factors reduced by warfarin.

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Q125EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

The minor crossmatch, no longer routinely performed, tests:

Answer: A. Patient red cells against donor plasma

The minor crossmatch detects donor antibodies against the patient's red cells. It was dropped because donor plasma is screened for unexpected antibodies.

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Q126EasyDonor selection & processing

What is the main purpose of the ISBT 128 labeling system?

Answer: A. Unique, internationally standard identification of each donation and product

ISBT 128 gives each donation a globally unique identification number and standard codes for product type, ABO/D and expiry. This supports traceability from donor to recipient.

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Q127EasyDonor selection & processing

Why is the collection bag gently mixed throughout whole blood donation?

Answer: A. To mix blood evenly with anticoagulant and prevent clots

Continuous mixing distributes the anticoagulant evenly so small clots do not form. Clots make the unit unusable and can block filters.

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Q128EasyDonor selection & processing

During donation, a swelling appears at the needle site. What is the correct action?

Answer: B. Stop, remove the needle, apply pressure and a cold pack

A hematoma means blood is leaking into tissues. The collection is stopped, the needle removed, and firm pressure with a cold pack applied.

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Q129EasyHDFN

Why do Lewis antibodies not cause HDFN?

Answer: D. They are mainly IgM and Lewis antigens are poorly developed at birth

Lewis antibodies are usually IgM, which cannot cross the placenta, and fetal and newborn red cells express little Lewis antigen.

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Q130EasyHDFN

At the first prenatal visit, which blood bank tests are routinely performed on every pregnant woman?

Answer: B. ABO group, D type and antibody screen

All pregnant women should have ABO, D and an antibody screen early in pregnancy to detect clinically significant antibodies and identify RhIG candidates.

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Q131EasyOther blood group systems

Diego antigens are carried on:

Answer: A. Band 3 (anion exchanger 1)

Diego antigens, including Dia/Dib and Wra/Wrb, are on band 3. Aquaporin-1 carries Colton antigens.

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Q132EasyOther blood group systems

Anti-Vel is clinically important because it:

Answer: C. Can bind complement and cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions

Vel is a high-prevalence antigen; anti-Vel is often IgM and IgG, binds complement and can cause severe intravascular hemolysis.

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Q133EasyOther blood group systems

Which group of antibodies is usually IgM, reacts best at room temperature or below, and is rarely clinically significant?

Answer: A. Anti-Lea, anti-P1, anti-M

Lewis, P1 and M antibodies are usually cold-reactive IgM. Kell, Duffy, Kidd, Rh and S/s/U antibodies are usually IgG and significant.

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Q134EasyRh system

Compared with ABO antigens, Rh antigens on fetal and newborn red cells are:

Answer: C. Well developed

Rh antigens are well expressed early in fetal life, which is why Rh antibodies can cause severe fetal disease. ABO antigens are weaker at birth.

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Q135EasyRh system

Apart from anti-D, which Rh antibody most often causes severe hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

Answer: B. Anti-c

Anti-c is the Rh antibody after anti-D most often linked to severe HDFN. Anti-C and anti-e usually cause mild disease.

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Q136EasyRh system

A donor types D−, C−, c+, E−, e+. The genotype is:

Answer: A. rr (dce/dce)

No D, C or E is present, so both haplotypes must be dce. r′ would add C and r″ would add E.

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Q137EasyAcid-base & blood gases

Which acid is called "volatile" because the body removes it mainly through the lungs?

Answer: C. Carbonic acid

Carbonic acid is in equilibrium with CO2, which is exhaled. Non-volatile (fixed) acids such as sulfuric, lactic and keto acids must be buffered and excreted by the kidneys or metabolized.

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Q138EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Sucrose is a non-reducing disaccharide. Which two monosaccharides form it?

Answer: D. Glucose and fructose

Sucrose is glucose linked to fructose through both anomeric carbons, so it has no free reducing group. Glucose + galactose is lactose; two glucose units form maltose.

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Q139EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

What is the main action of glucagon on glucose metabolism?

Answer: B. Increases hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Glucagon, released from pancreatic alpha cells during fasting, raises blood glucose by stimulating liver glycogen breakdown and glucose formation. The other actions are effects of insulin.

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Q140EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Mature red blood cells lack mitochondria. Their glycolysis therefore ends with the formation of:

Answer: A. Lactate

Without mitochondria, pyruvate cannot enter the citric acid cycle, so red cells reduce it to lactate to regenerate NAD+. Acetyl-CoA formation needs mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase.

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