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ASCP exam preparation (USA · MLS / MLT) – page 46

1200 practice MCQs for the ASCP medical laboratory exam. Level: Advanced.

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Q901MediumWBC disorders & leukemias

The most common cause of serious infections in chronic lymphocytic leukemia is:

Answer: D. Hypogammaglobulinemia

CLL cells do not make normal antibodies, and normal B-cell function is suppressed. The resulting low immunoglobulin levels lead to recurrent bacterial infections.

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Q902MediumHemostasis & coagulation

Plasma fibrinogen often rises in infection and inflammation because fibrinogen is:

Answer: C. An acute-phase protein

Fibrinogen is an acute-phase protein made by the liver, so it rises with inflammation. This also helps explain the raised ESR in inflammation.

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Q903MediumHemolytic anemias & hemoglobinopathies

In hemolytic anemia, urine urobilinogen is typically:

Answer: B. Increased

More bilirubin reaches the gut and is converted to urobilinogen, so more is reabsorbed and excreted in urine. Urine bilirubin stays negative because unconjugated bilirubin is not filtered.

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Q904MediumHemolytic anemias & hemoglobinopathies

Hereditary spherocytosis is most often inherited as which pattern?

Answer: B. Autosomal dominant

About three-quarters of HS cases are autosomal dominant, which is why a parent is often affected. The rest are recessive or new mutations.

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Q905MediumHematology methods & instruments

A thick malaria film is not fixed with methanol before staining because:

Answer: C. The red cells must lyse so parasites in many layers can be seen

Leaving the thick film unfixed lets the water-based stain lyse (dehemoglobinize) the red cells, so parasites in the thick layer can be seen. The thin film is fixed to keep red cells intact.

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Q906MediumHematology methods & instruments

Under Westgard rules, a single control result beyond ±3 SD from the mean (a 1-3s violation) means:

Answer: C. The run should be rejected and the cause investigated

A 1-3s violation is a rejection rule. Patient results from that run should not be reported until the error is found and corrected. The 1-2s rule is only a warning.

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Q907MediumABO system

Forward and reverse ABO typing results do not agree. What is the first step?

Answer: C. Repeat the tests on the same sample and check for clerical or technical errors

Many discrepancies come from clerical or technical errors, so the tests are repeated first (with a new sample if a wrong-blood sample is suspected). The ABO group must not be reported until the discrepancy is resolved.

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Q908MediumABO system

Naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B are thought to be stimulated by:

Answer: C. A- and B-like carbohydrate antigens on bacteria and in foods

Gut bacteria and foods carry carbohydrates similar to A and B, which stimulate antibody against whichever antigen the person lacks, without any red cell exposure.

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Q909MediumRh system

In Fisher-Race notation, the letter 'd' means:

Answer: C. The D antigen is absent; no 'd' antigen exists

'd' only shows that D is absent. No d antigen or anti-d has ever been found.

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Q910MediumRh system

Rh antigens are encoded by which genes?

Answer: B. Two closely linked genes, RHD and RHCE

RHD codes for the D protein and RHCE codes for the C/c and E/e antigens. Both are on chromosome 1. The three-gene idea of Fisher-Race is historical.

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Q911MediumAntibody screen & identification

22% bovine albumin enhances agglutination in antibody tests mainly by:

Answer: B. Reducing the zeta potential so red cells can come closer together

Albumin lowers the zeta potential (the repulsive charge between red cells), so IgG-coated cells can come close enough to agglutinate.

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Q912MediumCrossmatch & compatibility

A group AB patient needs plasma. Which plasma group is ABO-compatible?

Answer: A. AB only

Group AB red cells carry both A and B antigens, so plasma must contain neither anti-A nor anti-B. Only group AB plasma meets this.

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Q913MediumCrossmatch & compatibility

The name on a pretransfusion sample tube does not match the name on the request form. What is the correct action?

Answer: C. Reject the sample and collect a new, correctly labeled one

Mislabeled or mismatched samples must be rejected because they may come from the wrong patient. Labels must never be corrected in the laboratory.

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Q914MediumCrossmatch & compatibility

Uncrossmatched red cells were issued in an emergency. What should the laboratory do afterwards?

Answer: D. Complete compatibility testing promptly and inform the doctor at once if any unit is incompatible

Emergency release does not remove the need for testing. Standard tests are completed as soon as possible, and any incompatibility is reported urgently so the patient can be watched or treated.

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Q915MediumBlood components & storage

One apheresis platelet unit contains roughly the same number of platelets as how many whole-blood-derived platelet units?

Answer: B. 4–6

An apheresis unit contains at least 3 × 10^11 platelets, about the same as 4–6 pooled whole-blood-derived units, and it comes from a single donor.

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Q916MediumBlood components & storage

Mannitol is added to SAGM additive solution mainly to:

Answer: B. Reduce hemolysis by stabilizing the red cell membrane

SAGM contains saline, adenine, glucose and mannitol. Mannitol protects the membrane and reduces hemolysis during storage.

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Q917MediumDonor selection & processing

Transfusion-transmitted syphilis is rare mainly because Treponema pallidum:

Answer: C. Survives poorly in blood stored at 1–6 °C

T. pallidum does not survive long at refrigerator temperature, and donors are also screened serologically.

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Q918MediumDonor selection & processing

A donated unit is repeatedly reactive in the anti-HCV screening test. What happens to the unit?

Answer: B. It is not used for transfusion and is discarded

Units that are repeatedly reactive for a mandatory infectious marker must not be transfused. The donor is deferred and counseled according to confirmatory results.

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Q919MediumTransfusion reactions

Mild allergic (urticarial) transfusion reactions are mainly caused by:

Answer: B. Donor plasma proteins reacting with recipient IgE on mast cells

Soluble substances in donor plasma bind recipient IgE on mast cells and basophils, releasing histamine and causing hives and itching.

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Q920MediumCarbohydrates & diabetes

An adult has a fasting plasma glucose of 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) on two separate days. By ADA criteria this indicates:

Answer: B. Diabetes mellitus

A fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or higher, confirmed on repeat testing, meets ADA criteria for diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose is 100–125 mg/dL (5.6–6.9 mmol/L).

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