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ASCP exam preparation (USA · MLS / MLT) – page 11

1200 practice MCQs for the ASCP medical laboratory exam. Level: Advanced.

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Q201EasyGram-positive cocci

A single blood culture bottle grows Staphylococcus aureus. How should this result be regarded?

Answer: C. As clinically significant until proven otherwise

S. aureus is rarely a blood culture contaminant, so even one positive bottle is treated as true bacteremia and reported promptly. Coagulase-negative staphylococci, not S. aureus, are the common contaminants.

ID MG-BAC-0310 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q202EasyGram-positive cocci

Protein A of Staphylococcus aureus helps the organism avoid phagocytosis by binding:

Answer: B. The Fc portion of IgG

Protein A binds the Fc region of IgG, so antibodies attach in the wrong orientation and cannot act as opsonins. Binding of fibrinogen is the role of clumping factor.

ID MG-BAC-0312 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q203EasyMycobacteria

Malachite green is included in Löwenstein-Jensen medium to:

Answer: C. Inhibit contaminating bacteria

Malachite green is a selective dye that suppresses many contaminating bacteria. The egg base is solidified by inspissation, not by the dye.

ID MG-BAC-0320 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q204EasyMycobacteria

Identification and drug-susceptibility testing on a growing culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis should be performed under:

Answer: C. Biosafety level 3 containment practices

Manipulating cultures produces aerosols with very high numbers of bacilli, so BSL-3 containment is required. A clean-air bench protects the product, not the worker.

ID MG-BAC-0331 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q205EasyMycobacteria

A surgeon sends only a dry swab from a deep abscess for mycobacterial culture. Why are swabs discouraged for this test?

Answer: A. They carry too little material and the hydrophobic bacilli are poorly released

Swabs hold only a small volume, and waxy mycobacteria stick to the fibres, lowering recovery. Tissue or aspirated fluid is preferred.

ID MG-BAC-0335 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q206EasyNon-fermenters & other GNR

A false-positive oxidase test is most likely when colonies are picked with:

Answer: B. A nichrome wire loop

Iron in nichrome wire can oxidize the oxidase reagent and give a false-positive colour. Platinum, wood or plastic tools are recommended.

ID MG-BAC-0373 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q207EasyCSF

The reference range for total protein in adult lumbar CSF is approximately:

Answer: B. 15–45 mg/dL (0.15–0.45 g/L)

Normal lumbar CSF protein is about 15–45 mg/dL, much lower than plasma protein (60–80 g/L). Newborns have higher values.

ID MG-UBF-0084 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q208EasyCSF

The total volume of CSF in an adult and its approximate daily production are:

Answer: C. 90–150 mL total; about 500 mL produced per day

Adults have about 90–150 mL of CSF, produced mainly by the choroid plexus at about 500 mL per day, so it is replaced several times daily.

ID MG-UBF-0085 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q209EasyCSF

CSF cell counts should be performed within about 1 hour of collection because:

Answer: B. WBCs and RBCs begin to lyse

Cells, especially neutrophils, start to disintegrate in CSF within about an hour, falsely lowering counts. Glucose loss affects chemistry, not the cell count.

ID MG-UBF-0092 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q210EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

What is the usual upper limit of the WBC count in normal synovial fluid?

Answer: A. 200 cells/µL

Normal synovial fluid has fewer than about 200 WBCs/µL, mostly mononuclear cells. Counts of 2,000–50,000/µL suggest inflammatory arthritis.

ID MG-UBF-0096 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q211EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

During arthrocentesis, the first tube is bloody but later tubes become clearer. This pattern most likely indicates:

Answer: B. A traumatic tap

Blood from needle injury is uneven and decreases as aspiration continues. True joint haemorrhage gives uniformly bloody fluid in all tubes.

ID MG-UBF-0102 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q212EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

Amniotic fluid sent for bilirubin (ΔA450) measurement in suspected haemolytic disease of the fetus should be:

Answer: C. Protected from light in an amber or wrapped tube

Bilirubin is broken down by light, which gives falsely low results. The specimen must be shielded from light immediately after collection.

ID MG-UBF-0121 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q213EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

A patient taking high-dose vitamin C has a guaiac fecal occult blood test. What effect is expected?

Answer: D. False-negative result

Vitamin C is a reducing agent that blocks oxidation of guaiac, so bleeding may be missed. Red meat and some vegetables with peroxidase activity cause false positives.

ID MG-UBF-0128 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q214EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

An infant has sweat chloride of 72 mmol/L on two separate tests. The best interpretation is:

Answer: C. Consistent with cystic fibrosis

Sweat chloride of 60 mmol/L or more supports cystic fibrosis; 30–59 mmol/L is intermediate and below 30 is unlikely. Repeat positive tests with clinical findings confirm the diagnosis.

ID MG-UBF-0129 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q215EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

The nitrite pad of a reagent strip is based on which reaction?

Answer: D. Griess reaction: diazotisation followed by coupling to form a pink azo dye

Nitrite reacts with an aromatic amine to form a diazonium salt, which couples with a second compound to give a pink colour. Peroxidase activity is the basis of the blood pad.

ID MG-UBF-0136 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q216EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

The reagent strip pH pad uses a double indicator system of:

Answer: D. Methyl red and bromthymol blue

Methyl red and bromthymol blue give a colour range from orange to blue across pH 5 to 9. Tetrabromphenol blue is the protein pad indicator.

ID MG-UBF-0142 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q217EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Many round urothelial (transitional) epithelial cells with normal morphology are seen in a urine collected just after bladder catheterisation. This finding is most likely:

Answer: D. Due to the catheterisation procedure

Catheterisation scrapes cells from the urothelium, so increased normal transitional cells are expected. Malignancy is suspected only when cells show abnormal nuclear features.

ID MG-UBF-0156 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q218EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Large, flat urinary epithelial cells with abundant cytoplasm and a small central nucleus are most often:

Answer: A. Squamous cells from the urethra or vagina, indicating contamination

These are squamous cells, the largest cells in sediment, and in large numbers suggest a poorly collected specimen. Renal tubular cells are smaller with an eccentric nucleus.

ID MG-UBF-0157 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q219EasyRBC indices & anemias

Which hemoglobin value lies within the usual reference interval for a healthy adult man?

Answer: C. 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)

Adult male hemoglobin is roughly 13–17 g/dL, so 15.0 g/dL is well inside the range. 9.5 and 11.0 g/dL indicate anemia, and 21.0 g/dL suggests polycythemia.

ID MG-EHEM-0001 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q220EasyRBC indices & anemias

Which plasma protein carries iron from the gut and storage sites to developing red cells in the marrow?

Answer: B. Transferrin

Transferrin is the iron transport protein of plasma and delivers iron to erythroblasts through the transferrin receptor. Ferritin is the storage form, and haptoglobin binds free hemoglobin.

ID MG-EHEM-0002 · Found a mistake? Report it
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