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ASCP exam preparation (USA · MLS / MLT) – page 51

1200 practice MCQs for the ASCP medical laboratory exam. Level: Advanced.

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Q1001HardLiver function & bilirubin

After surgical relief of a bile duct obstruction, a patient's serum direct bilirubin stays raised for weeks despite normal bile flow. The best explanation is:

Answer: C. Delta bilirubin bound covalently to albumin clears slowly

Delta bilirubin is conjugated bilirubin covalently linked to albumin, so it has albumin's long half-life (about 2–3 weeks) and is not excreted in urine. It reacts in the direct bilirubin assay.

ID MG-CHE-0202 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q1002HardLiver function & bilirubin

Which inherited condition causes mild conjugated hyperbilirubinemia with a normal-looking liver on biopsy (no pigment)?

Answer: A. Rotor syndrome

Rotor syndrome gives benign conjugated hyperbilirubinemia without hepatic pigment. Gilbert and Crigler–Najjar are unconjugated disorders.

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Q1003HardLiver function & bilirubin

A 3-day-old boy has lethargy and ammonia above 300 µmol/L (510 µg/dL), low plasma citrulline and high urine orotic acid. The most likely disorder is:

Answer: A. Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

OTC deficiency blocks carbamoyl phosphate use, which spills into pyrimidine synthesis and raises orotic acid; citrulline is low. CPS deficiency also has low citrulline but low or normal orotic acid.

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Q1004HardLiver function & bilirubin

Calculate the FIB-4 index: age 50 years, AST 40 U/L, ALT 25 U/L, platelets 200 × 10⁹/L. [FIB-4 = (age × AST) ÷ (platelets × √ALT)]

Answer: B. 2.0

(50 × 40) ÷ (200 × √25) = 2000 ÷ (200 × 5) = 2000 ÷ 1000 = 2.0. Forgetting the square root of ALT gives 0.4, not 2.0.

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Q1005HardProteins & electrophoresis

Capillary zone electrophoresis shows a small new peak in the beta region. Immunofixation is negative. The patient had a contrast CT scan the previous day. Most likely cause?

Answer: A. Iodinated contrast medium absorbing UV light

Capillary electrophoresis detects proteins by UV absorbance near 200–214 nm; radiocontrast agents absorb at these wavelengths and create artifactual peaks. A negative immunofixation argues against a monoclonal protein.

ID MG-CHE-0253 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q1006HardRenal function (urea, creatinine)

A 24-hour urine volume is 1440 mL, urine creatinine 8.0 mmol/L and serum creatinine 100 µmol/L. What is the creatinine clearance?

Answer: B. 80 mL/min

Clearance = (U × V) / P. Urine flow = 1440/1440 = 1.0 mL/min; U = 8000 µmol/L; P = 100 µmol/L. So (8000 × 1.0)/100 = 80 mL/min. Forgetting to convert mmol to µmol gives a wrong answer.

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Q1007HardRenal function (urea, creatinine)

Rasburicase therapy can cause falsely low uric acid results if the blood sample is:

Answer: A. Left at room temperature before analysis

Rasburicase is a recombinant uricase that continues to degrade uric acid in the tube. Samples should be collected into pre-chilled tubes, kept on ice and analysed promptly.

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Q1008HardTDM, toxicology & vitamins

To assess chronic arsenic exposure over several months, which specimen is most useful?

Answer: B. Hair or nails

Arsenic binds keratin in hair and nails, recording exposure over months. Blood arsenic clears quickly; urine reflects recent exposure.

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Q1009HardTumor markers & iron studies

A man with a testicular tumor diagnosed as pure seminoma on biopsy has a clearly raised serum AFP. This suggests:

Answer: D. A nonseminomatous component is present

Pure seminoma does not produce AFP (it may produce some hCG). A raised AFP points to a nonseminomatous germ cell element, which changes treatment.

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Q1010HardTumor markers & iron studies

A woman with suspected molar pregnancy has an hCG result much lower than expected. After a 1:100 dilution the result is very high. This is due to:

Answer: D. The high-dose hook effect

In one-step sandwich assays, huge antigen excess saturates both antibodies and gives a falsely low signal. Dilution brings the level into range and reveals the true high value.

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Q1011HardTumor markers & iron studies

In common colorimetric methods for serum iron (e.g. ferrozine), which step comes before color formation?

Answer: A. Iron is released from transferrin by acid and reduced to Fe2+

Acid releases Fe3+ from transferrin, a reducing agent converts it to Fe2+, and Fe2+ then forms a colored complex with the chromogen. Chromogens like ferrozine react with ferrous, not ferric, iron.

ID MG-CHE-0319 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q1012HardHematology methods & instruments

A sample from a patient with a cryoglobulin shows falsely raised WBC and platelet counts, and precipitate on the smear. The best corrective action is to:

Answer: C. Warm the sample to 37°C and re-analyze promptly

Cryoglobulins precipitate at room temperature and the particles are counted as cells; warming dissolves them. Refrigeration increases the precipitation.

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Q1013HardHematology methods & instruments

In analyzers using VCS technology, the radiofrequency (conductivity) measurement mainly gives information about a white cell's:

Answer: A. Internal composition, such as nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

Low-frequency direct current measures volume, while high-frequency current passes through the membrane and reflects internal contents such as nucleus size and density. Peroxidase activity is measured by cytochemical methods, not conductivity.

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Q1014HardHemolytic anemias & hemoglobinopathies

A cold autoantibody causing hemolysis in a patient with infectious mononucleosis most often has which specificity?

Answer: A. Anti-i

EBV infection is associated with transient cold agglutinins of anti-i specificity, which react best with cord cells. Anti-I is the typical specificity after Mycoplasma infection.

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Q1015HardHemostasis & coagulation

A patient's hematocrit is 65%. Using the CLSI formula, how much 3.2% citrate is needed for 4.5 mL of whole blood?

Answer: B. 0.29 mL

C (mL) = 1.85 × 10^-3 × (100 − Hct) × blood volume = 0.00185 × 35 × 4.5 ≈ 0.29 mL. Using the standard 0.5 mL would over-anticoagulate the smaller plasma volume and falsely prolong clotting times.

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Q1016HardHemostasis & coagulation

A patient's prolonged aPTT shortens markedly when plasma is pre-incubated with the silica activator for 10 minutes instead of 3. Which deficiency is most likely?

Answer: A. Prekallikrein

In prekallikrein deficiency, factor XII slowly auto-activates with longer contact time, correcting the aPTT. Deficiencies of XI, IX or VIII do not correct this way.

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Q1017HardHemostasis & coagulation

A sample drawn from a central line shows a very prolonged thrombin time but a normal reptilase time. The most likely cause is:

Answer: B. Heparin contamination

Reptilase is not inhibited by heparin, so a normal reptilase with long TT indicates heparin. Low or abnormal fibrinogen prolongs both tests.

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Q1018HardHemostasis & coagulation

A patient with mild bleeding has mild thrombocytopenia, low VWF:Rco/VWF:Ag ratio and increased platelet aggregation with low-dose ristocetin. The most likely vWD type is:

Answer: D. Type 2B

Type 2B VWF binds platelet GPIb too strongly, giving enhanced low-dose RIPA and clearance of platelets. Type 2A shows reduced aggregation with ristocetin.

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Q1019HardHemostasis & coagulation

Before emergency surgery, a patient on dabigatran has a normal thrombin time. This most likely means:

Answer: C. No clinically relevant dabigatran is present

The TT is very sensitive to direct thrombin inhibitors; a normal TT effectively excludes significant dabigatran. Even low levels markedly prolong it, so it cannot quantify therapeutic levels.

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Q1020HardPlatelets

A healthy term newborn has platelets of 15 × 10^9/L and petechiae. The mother's platelet count is normal and she is HPA-1a negative. The most likely diagnosis is:

Answer: B. Fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

Maternal alloantibodies to fetal HPA-1a cross the placenta and destroy fetal platelets. In maternal ITP the mother herself is usually thrombocytopenic.

ID MG-HEM-0165 · Found a mistake? Report it
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