Home › Exam prep › ASCP

ASCP exam preparation (USA · MLS / MLT) – page 2

1200 practice MCQs for the ASCP medical laboratory exam. Level: Advanced.

123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960
Q21EasyABO system

ABO antigens are important in solid organ transplantation mainly because they are:

Answer: A. Expressed on many tissues, including vascular endothelium

ABH are histo-blood group antigens found on endothelium and many epithelial cells. ABO-incompatible grafts risk hyperacute rejection from recipient anti-A or anti-B.

ID MG-BBK-0054 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q22EasyABO system

Compared with adult red cells, ABO antigens on newborn red cells are:

Answer: B. Present but weaker, reaching adult levels by about 2–4 years

A and B antigens are present at birth but weaker, as fewer branched chains are formed. Adult strength develops over the first few years of life.

ID MG-BBK-0055 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q23EasyABO system

Most routine anti-A and anti-B typing reagents used today are:

Answer: D. Murine monoclonal antibodies

Current ABO reagents are mostly mouse monoclonal IgM antibodies, which are standardized and strong. Human polyclonal sera were used in the past; lectins serve special purposes.

ID MG-BBK-0060 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q24EasyABO system

In tube ABO typing, a mixed-field reaction looks like:

Answer: B. Small agglutinates among many free red cells

Mixed field shows agglutinates alongside a large population of unagglutinated cells, indicating two cell populations. Coin-like stacking is rouleaux.

ID MG-BBK-0061 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q25EasyAntibody screen & identification

In a column (gel) agglutination test, a strong positive (4+) reaction appears as:

Answer: A. A red cell layer at the top of the gel

Large agglutinates cannot enter the gel and stay at the top. Unagglutinated cells pass through and form a button at the bottom, which is a negative reaction.

ID MG-BBK-0083 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q26EasyAntibody screen & identification

The sensitization step of the indirect antiglobulin test is performed at:

Answer: D. 37 °C

IgG antibodies bind best at body temperature, so plasma and cells are incubated at 37 °C before washing and adding AHG. 56 °C is used for heat elution.

ID MG-BBK-0101 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q27EasyBlood components & storage

What is the function of adenine in CPDA-1?

Answer: D. Serves as substrate for ATP synthesis

Adenine allows red cells to resynthesize ATP, improving post-transfusion survival and extending storage. Citrate, not adenine, prevents clotting by binding calcium.

ID MG-BBK-0106 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q28EasyBlood components & storage

Red blood cell units must be stored at:

Answer: C. 1–6 °C

Red cells are stored refrigerated at 1–6 °C. The wider 1–10 °C range applies to transport, not storage.

ID MG-BBK-0109 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q29EasyBlood components & storage

The main purpose of washing red cells is to:

Answer: C. Remove plasma proteins

Saline washing removes about 99% of plasma proteins, useful for recurrent severe allergic reactions or IgA-deficient patients. It does not prevent GVHD.

ID MG-BBK-0127 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q30EasyBlood components & storage

Platelets have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among blood components mainly because they are:

Answer: A. Stored at room temperature

Storage at 20–24 °C allows skin bacteria to multiply, unlike refrigerated red cells or frozen plasma.

ID MG-BBK-0136 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q31EasyBlood components & storage

In a stable adult without bleeding, one red cell unit is expected to raise the hemoglobin by about:

Answer: B. 10 g/L (1 g/dL)

One unit usually raises hemoglobin by about 10 g/L (1 g/dL) and hematocrit by about 3% in an average adult.

ID MG-BBK-0138 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q32EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

A group B patient needs plasma. Which plasma groups are ABO-compatible?

Answer: C. Group B or AB

Plasma must lack antibodies to the recipient's antigens. Group B plasma (anti-A) and AB plasma (no antibodies) are safe; group O plasma contains anti-B.

ID MG-BBK-0149 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q33EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

Blood is released before pretransfusion testing is complete. Which record is required?

Answer: D. A signed statement from the physician that the need was urgent

Emergency release requires the requesting physician to document that the clinical situation justified transfusion before testing was finished. Testing is completed afterwards and abnormalities reported at once.

ID MG-BBK-0152 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q34EasyDonor selection & processing

Which recently given vaccine does NOT require donor deferral in a donor who feels well?

Answer: C. Tetanus toxoid

Toxoids and inactivated vaccines do not cause deferral in symptom-free donors. Live attenuated vaccines such as varicella, oral typhoid and yellow fever require a temporary deferral of 2–4 weeks.

ID MG-BBK-0176 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q35EasyDonor selection & processing

During donation, a donor becomes pale, sweaty and dizzy with a slow pulse. What is the correct first action?

Answer: C. Stop the donation and place the donor with legs raised

These are signs of a vasovagal reaction. The needle is removed, the donor lies flat with legs raised, and cold compresses are applied; the collection is not continued.

ID MG-BBK-0185 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q36EasyOther blood group systems

The Kidd glycoprotein functions in the red cell membrane as a:

Answer: A. Urea transporter

Kidd antigens are on the urea transporter (SLC14A1), which helps red cells keep osmotic stability in the renal medulla. The anion exchanger (band 3) carries the Diego antigens.

ID MG-BBK-0232 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q37EasyOther blood group systems

Lewis antigens on red cells are:

Answer: D. Adsorbed from plasma glycolipids

Lewis antigens are made in tissues and taken up passively onto red cells from plasma. This is why the Lewis type can change, e.g. in pregnancy. Non-secretors with a Le gene still express Lea.

ID MG-BBK-0238 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q38EasyRh system

A D-negative woman received antenatal RhIG at 28 weeks. She now delivers a D-positive baby. What is needed?

Answer: A. A fetal bleed screen and postpartum RhIG

Antenatal RhIG does not replace the postpartum dose. After a D-positive birth she needs a fetomaternal hemorrhage screen and at least one dose.

ID MG-BBK-0292 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q39EasyTransfusion reactions

A patient with thalassemia major receives regular red cell transfusions. Which long-term complication is monitored with serum ferritin?

Answer: C. Iron overload (transfusional hemosiderosis)

Each red cell unit contains about 200–250 mg of iron, which the body cannot excrete. Ferritin is used to monitor iron load and guide chelation therapy.

ID MG-BBK-0315 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q40EasyAcid-base & blood gases

A venous sample was mistakenly labelled as arterial. Which result pattern most suggests this?

Answer: D. Low pO2 (about 40 mmHg) and slightly higher pCO2

Mixed venous blood normally has pO2 about 35–45 mmHg and pCO2 a few mmHg higher than arterial, with slightly lower pH. Unexpected hypoxemia in a well patient should prompt this question.

ID MG-CHE-0056 · Found a mistake? Report it
123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960
📱 Practise with a timer, track your score and earn certificates in the free MLT Globe app – Google Play or practise online.