Home › Exam prep › QCHP

QCHP exam preparation (Qatar) – page 34

749 practice MCQs for the QCHP medical laboratory exam. Level: Intermediate.

1234567891011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738
Q661MediumSerologic tests & methods

A patient has been HBsAg positive for more than 6 months. This indicates:

Answer: C. Chronic hepatitis B infection

Persistence of HBsAg for longer than 6 months defines chronic hepatitis B infection. Vaccination produces anti-HBs only, and resolved infection shows anti-HBs with anti-HBc.

ID MG-EIMM-0025 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q662MediumSerologic tests & methods

A test with very high sensitivity is most useful for:

Answer: D. Screening, because a negative result helps rule out disease

A highly sensitive test misses few cases, so it gives few false negatives and is well suited to screening. High specificity is more important for confirmation.

ID MG-EIMM-0026 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q663MediumSerologic tests & methods

At her first antenatal visit, a pregnant woman is rubella IgG positive and rubella IgM negative. This result most likely means:

Answer: B. She is immune from past infection or vaccination

IgG without IgM indicates past infection or vaccination and immunity. Acute infection shows IgM, and a susceptible woman would be IgG negative.

ID MG-EIMM-0028 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q664MediumAutoimmune & hypersensitivity

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually caused by antibodies of which class?

Answer: A. IgG

Warm AIHA is usually caused by IgG autoantibodies reacting best at 37 °C, detected by a positive direct antiglobulin test. Cold agglutinin disease is usually IgM.

ID MG-EIMM-0039 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q665MediumTransplant & immunodeficiency

A 1-year-old boy has eczema, recurrent ear infections and bleeding with low platelets that are small in size. Which immunodeficiency is most likely?

Answer: B. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

The triad of eczema, thrombocytopenia with small platelets and recurrent infections in a boy is typical of X-linked Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome.

ID MG-EIMM-0048 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q666MediumTransplant & immunodeficiency

An HIV-positive adult has a CD4 T-cell count of 150 cells/µL. This indicates:

Answer: C. Advanced disease (AIDS) with high risk of opportunistic infections

A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL defines AIDS and carries a high risk of opportunistic infections such as Pneumocystis pneumonia. Normal adult CD4 counts are roughly 500–1500 cells/µL.

ID MG-EIMM-0049 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q667MediumNon-fermenters & other GNR

When a colony of Vibrio cholerae is mixed with 0.5% sodium deoxycholate on a slide, the suspension becomes viscous and forms a thread when lifted with a loop. This is the:

Answer: B. String test

Vibrio cells lyse in deoxycholate, releasing DNA that forms a mucoid string; Aeromonas is usually string negative.

ID MG-EBAC-0054 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q668MediumNon-fermenters & other GNR

The yellow-green pigment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa that fluoresces under ultraviolet light is:

Answer: C. Pyoverdin

Pyoverdin (fluorescein) is fluorescent; pyocyanin is the blue non-fluorescent pigment, and prodigiosin is the red pigment of Serratia.

ID MG-EBAC-0055 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q669MediumBlood & tissue protozoa

People who lack the Duffy blood group antigen on their red cells are largely resistant to infection by:

Answer: A. Plasmodium vivax

P. vivax uses the Duffy antigen as its receptor to enter red cells, so Duffy-negative people are largely protected.

ID MG-EPAR-0007 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q670MediumLab diagnosis & methods

The Kato-Katz thick smear technique is mainly used to:

Answer: A. Count helminth eggs per gram of stool

Kato-Katz uses a template to give a fixed amount of stool, allowing eggs per gram to be calculated for intensity surveys.

ID MG-EPAR-0027 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q671MediumMycology

In tissue, Coccidioides immitis is seen as:

Answer: B. Large spherules filled with endospores

Coccidioides forms thick-walled spherules containing endospores in tissue, and arthroconidia in culture.

ID MG-EMYC-0014 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q672MediumMycology

A dimorphic mould from an HIV patient from South-East Asia produces a diffusible red pigment at 25 °C. The most likely organism is:

Answer: C. Talaromyces (Penicillium) marneffei

T. marneffei is the only dimorphic 'Penicillium', produces a red diffusible pigment and causes disseminated infection in HIV patients in South-East Asia.

ID MG-EMYC-0015 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q673MediumMycology

In lactophenol cotton blue mounting fluid, the phenol component mainly:

Answer: D. Kills the fungus

Phenol kills the organism, lactic acid preserves structures and cotton blue stains the fungal wall.

ID MG-EMYC-0020 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q674HardSpecial stains

Sections keep detaching from slides during a harsh staining procedure. What protective coating can be applied?

Answer: B. A thin film of celloidin

Dipping slides in dilute celloidin forms a film that holds sections in place; glycerin and oils prevent adhesion.

ID LG-HIS-0045 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q675HardDecalcification

In electrolytic decalcification, how is calcium removed from bone?

Answer: A. Calcium ions migrate to the cathode under an electric current

An acid bath (typically formic plus hydrochloric acid) is used with a direct current, which attracts Ca²⁺ ions to the cathode and speeds decalcification. EDTA chelation is a separate, slower method.

ID LG-HIS-0237 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q676HardABO system

A group A patient's plasma weakly agglutinates A1 reagent cells but not A2 cells. The red cells do not react with Dolichos biflorus lectin. The most likely cause is:

Answer: B. Anti-A1 in an A2 individual

Dolichos biflorus lectin reacts with A1 but not A2 cells, so the patient is A2. About 1-8% of A2 and 22-35% of A2B people make anti-A1, which gives this reverse-typing discrepancy.

ID MG-BBK-0009 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q677HardABO system

A donor's red cells do not react with monoclonal anti-A, react 1+ with anti-A,B, and the plasma contains anti-B but no anti-A. The most likely phenotype is:

Answer: A. Ax

Ax cells typically react weakly or not at all with anti-A but agglutinate with anti-A,B from group O people. A2 cells react strongly with anti-A, and Bombay plasma would contain anti-H.

ID MG-BBK-0042 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q678HardABO system

Forward type: group A. Reverse: A1 cells 1+, B cells 4+, A2 cells 1+. The antibody screen is positive at immediate spin. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy?

Answer: C. A cold alloantibody such as anti-M

Reactions with both A1 and A2 cells plus a positive room-temperature screen point to a cold alloantibody (e.g., anti-M) on the reagent cells. Anti-A1 would not react with A2 cells. Use antigen-negative A1 cells after identification.

ID MG-BBK-0044 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q679HardBlood components & storage

Deglycerolized red cells prepared in a closed system and stored in AS-3 at 1–6 °C expire after:

Answer: B. 14 days

A closed-system deglycerolization device allows 14 days of storage. Open-system deglycerolized cells expire in 24 hours.

ID MG-BBK-0129 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q680HardDonor selection & processing

A collection bag contains 63 mL of CPD for 450 mL of blood. Only 300 mL will be collected. How much anticoagulant should be removed?

Answer: B. 21 mL

Needed anticoagulant = (300 ÷ 450) × 63 = 42 mL. The amount to remove is 63 − 42 = 21 mL. Keeping too much anticoagulant would harm red cells.

ID MG-BBK-0194 · Found a mistake? Report it
1234567891011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738
📱 Practise with a timer, track your score and earn certificates in the free MLT Globe app – Google Play or practise online.