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QCHP exam preparation (Qatar)

749 practice MCQs for the QCHP medical laboratory exam. Level: Intermediate.

Subject mix: Blood Banking 20%, Hematology 20%, Chemistry 20%, Immunology & Serology 15%, Bacteriology 13%, Parasitology 3%, Histo & Cyto Techniques 3%, Histopathology 2%, Mycology 2%, Virology 2%

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Q1EasyImmune system principles

The immune system is broadly divided into which two arms?

Answer: D. Innate (non-specific) and adaptive (specific)

The primary division is innate versus adaptive immunity. Humoral and cell-mediated responses are subdivisions of the adaptive arm.

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Q2EasyImmune system principles

A single IgG molecule is made of how many polypeptide chains?

Answer: D. Four

The basic immunoglobulin unit has two identical heavy and two identical light chains linked by disulfide bonds. Five refers to the number of units in pentameric IgM.

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Q3EasyDonor selection & processing

What needle size is standard for whole-blood donor collection?

Answer: C. 16-gauge

A wide 16–17 gauge needle allows rapid flow into the bag and minimizes shear damage to red cells. Higher gauge numbers are narrower needles.

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Q4EasyImmune system principles

Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta and gives passive immunity to the newborn?

Answer: C. IgG

IgG is the only class transported across the placenta via neonatal Fc receptors. It also has four subclasses and is the most abundant serum immunoglobulin.

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Q5EasyGeneral

Giving a patient stored blood equal to or exceeding their whole blood volume within 24 hours is termed:

Answer: B. Massive transfusion

Massive transfusion is classically replacement of one blood volume (about 10 units in an adult) in 24 hours, bringing risks of dilutional coagulopathy, hypothermia and citrate toxicity.

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Q6EasyDonor selection & processing

Which test is NOT a universal mandatory screen for donated blood?

Answer: A. Schistosomiasis serology

Every donated unit is screened for HIV, HBV (HBsAg) and HCV, plus syphilis. Schistosomiasis serology is not part of routine mandatory donor screening.

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Q7EasyImmune system principles

Why do antibodies and T-cell receptors bind antigens specifically?

Answer: B. Complementary shape and chemical fit with the antigen

Binding depends on the complementary fit of the binding site to the epitope through non-covalent forces. TCRs lack immunoglobulin light and heavy chains.

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Q8EasyImmune system principles

In a healthy adult, which immunoglobulin class has the highest serum concentration?

Answer: A. IgG

IgG makes up about 75–80% of serum immunoglobulin. IgA is second and IgE the lowest.

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Q9EasyImmune system principles

Which immunoglobulin class is present at the lowest serum concentration in normal adults?

Answer: A. IgE

IgE is present in trace amounts, much lower than IgD. Most IgE is bound to mast cells and basophils.

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Q10EasyAutoimmune & hypersensitivity

Failure of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self leads to:

Answer: D. Autoimmune disease

Loss of self-tolerance produces autoimmune diseases.

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Q11EasyAutoimmune & hypersensitivity

Inherited defects in innate or adaptive immune components cause:

Answer: D. Immunodeficiency

Primary immunodeficiency results from genetic defects in immune components, causing recurrent infections.

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Q12EasyImmune system principles

Which gastric factor kills most swallowed microorganisms?

Answer: D. Hydrochloric acid

Low pH from HCl destroys most ingested microbes. Hyaluronidase and haemolysin are bacterial virulence factors.

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Q13EasyImmune system principles

After migrating into tissue, a monocyte becomes a:

Answer: B. Macrophage

Monocytes enter tissues and mature into macrophages, e.g. Kupffer cells.

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Q14EasyImmune system principles

What is the main role of C5a in inflammation?

Answer: B. Chemotaxis and activation of neutrophils and macrophages

C5a is a strong chemoattractant for phagocytes.

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Q15EasyImmune system principles

Which is a feature of active acquired immunity?

Answer: B. It is long-lasting

Active immunity generates memory cells and lasts long. Maternal transfer and antibody injection are passive.

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Q16EasyImmune system principles

Giving diphtheria antitoxin to a patient provides:

Answer: C. Artificial passive immunity

Antitoxin provides preformed antibodies, giving immediate but temporary passive protection.

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Q17EasyImmune system principles

Which cytokine is secreted by T cells and activates macrophages and NK cells?

Answer: B. Interferon-gamma

Interferon-gamma is produced by Th1 and NK cells and activates macrophages.

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Q18EasyAutoimmune & hypersensitivity

A patient develops an itchy vesicular rash 48 hours after wearing a nickel bracelet. Which arm of immunity mediates this reaction?

Answer: C. Sensitised T lymphocytes

Allergic contact dermatitis is a delayed (type IV) reaction; hapten-modified proteins activate memory T cells, which peak at 48-72 h. Antibodies are not required.

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Q19EasyTransplant & immunodeficiency

Most clinical organ transplants, e.g. a kidney from an unrelated human donor, are classified as:

Answer: A. Allografts

An allograft passes between genetically different members of the same species, so HLA mismatches can provoke rejection.

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Q20EasyTransplant & immunodeficiency

After an allogeneic stem-cell transplant, a patient develops rash, diarrhoea and raised liver enzymes. Graft-versus-host disease means:

Answer: C. Donor immune cells attack the recipient's tissues

In GVHD, immunocompetent donor T cells recognise host antigens as foreign, typically damaging skin, gut and liver. Recipient attack on the graft is rejection.

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