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DHA exam preparation (Dubai) – page 5

700 practice MCQs for the DHA medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.

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Q81EasyHematopoiesis & general hematology

Production of granulocytes and monocytes in the bone marrow is specifically termed:

Answer: C. Myelopoiesis

Myelopoiesis covers granulocyte and monocyte formation from myeloid progenitors. Leukopoiesis is the broader term for all white cell production, including lymphopoiesis.

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Q82EasyABO system

A patient grouped as AB has which naturally occurring ABO antibodies in plasma?

Answer: D. Neither anti-A nor anti-B

People lack antibodies to their own antigens. Group AB carries both antigens, so no anti-A or anti-B is formed, which is why AB plasma is the universal plasma donor.

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Q83EasyPlatelets

An isolated platelet count of 35 × 10^9/L most typically presents with:

Answer: A. Nosebleeds and skin petechiae

Thrombocytopenia causes mucocutaneous bleeding such as epistaxis, gum bleeding and petechiae. Deep bleeding into joints and muscles is typical of coagulation factor deficiency.

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Q84EasyRBC indices & anemias

A positive direct antiglobulin test indicates:

Answer: A. Red cells coated in vivo with IgG and/or complement

The DAT adds anti-human globulin directly to washed patient cells, detecting in vivo sensitization. Free serum antibody is detected by the indirect antiglobulin test.

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Q85EasyPlatelets

Circulating platelets normally survive for about:

Answer: C. 7–10 days

Platelets circulate for roughly 7–10 days before removal by the spleen and liver. 120 days is the red cell lifespan.

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Q86EasyHematopoiesis & general hematology

Many red cell blood group antigens are membrane proteins carrying carbohydrate chains. Such proteins are called:

Answer: C. Glycoproteins

Glycoproteins such as glycophorins and band 3 dominate membrane proteins and carry antigens like MN. Lipoproteins transport lipids in plasma.

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Q87EasyRBC indices & anemias

A battery-factory worker has anemia with coarse basophilic stippling of red cells. The most likely cause is:

Answer: C. Chronic lead poisoning

Lead inhibits pyrimidine 5'-nucleotidase, so ribosomal RNA aggregates as coarse stippling, and it blocks heme synthesis. Stippling may also occur in thalassemia.

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Q88EasyHematopoiesis & general hematology

Normal red cells survive in the circulation for approximately:

Answer: C. 120 days

Aged red cells are removed mainly by splenic macrophages after about 120 days. Shortened survival defines hemolysis.

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Q89EasyHematology methods & instruments

Which total leukocyte count lies within the usual adult reference interval?

Answer: D. 7.5 × 10^9/L

The adult WBC reference interval is roughly 4.0–11.0 × 10^9/L. Lower values indicate leukopenia and higher values leukocytosis.

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Q90EasyRBC indices & anemias

Anemia is defined in the laboratory by:

Answer: B. Hemoglobin below the age- and sex-specific reference limit

Anemia means reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, measured as low hemoglobin. MCV classifies anemia but does not define it.

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Q91EasyRBC indices & anemias

Which set of results favors iron deficiency anemia?

Answer: C. Low MCV/MCH, low serum iron, high TIBC

Iron deficiency lowers serum iron and ferritin while transferrin synthesis rises, increasing TIBC. Normal iron studies with microcytosis suggest thalassemia trait.

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Q92EasyHemostasis & coagulation

Christmas disease (hemophilia B) results from deficiency of:

Answer: C. Factor IX

Hemophilia B is X-linked factor IX deficiency, clinically similar to hemophilia A. Factor-specific assays distinguish them.

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Q93EasyABO system

Which naturally occurring antibodies are expected in the plasma of a group O adult?

Answer: C. Both anti-A and anti-B

Group O red cells lack A and B antigens, so the plasma contains both anti-A and anti-B (plus anti-A,B), in keeping with Landsteiner's rule.

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Q94EasyABO system

Which set of carbohydrate antigens belongs to the ABO (with H) system?

Answer: D. A, B and H

Group O cells carry unconverted H substance; there is no 'O antigen'. H is the precursor that the A and B transferases modify.

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Q95EasyDonor selection & processing

A prospective donor reveals a past confirmed positive anti-HIV result. What is the correct donor status?

Answer: B. Permanent (indefinite) deferral

A history of confirmed HIV, HCV or HBV infection leads to indefinite deferral, as the infection may persist and be transmitted by transfusion.

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Q96EasyABO system

Forward typing shows no agglutination with either anti-A or anti-B reagent. The ABO group is:

Answer: C. O

Absence of both A and B antigens on red cells defines group O; AB cells would react with both reagents.

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Q97EasyGeneral

Anti-human globulin (Coombs) reagent is needed mainly to detect:

Answer: A. IgG antibodies that coat red cells without agglutinating them

IgG ('incomplete') antibodies sensitise red cells but are too small to bridge them; AHG cross-links the bound IgG to produce visible agglutination.

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Q98EasyDonor selection & processing

Which of these tests is a mandatory screen on every donated unit?

Answer: C. Test for syphilis (e.g., TPHA)

Syphilis screening is compulsory for all donations. CMV is tested only for selected recipients, hepatitis A is not routinely screened, and malaria testing depends on local epidemiology.

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Q99EasyGeneral

When an antibody binds red cells and activates complement to completion, the cells rupture and release haemoglobin. This reaction end-point is called:

Answer: B. Haemolysis

Formation of the membrane attack complex lyses red cells, which is read as haemolysis and is a positive reaction. Sensitisation is only antibody coating.

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Q100EasyGeneral

Anti-A and anti-B found in people never exposed to foreign red cells are described as:

Answer: C. Naturally occurring antibodies

ABO antibodies arise without red-cell exposure, probably from environmental antigens resembling A and B; they are mainly IgM. Immune antibodies need transfusion or pregnancy.

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