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DHA exam preparation (Dubai) – page 16

700 practice MCQs for the DHA medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.

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Q301EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

The breakdown of glycogen to release glucose is called:

Answer: A. Glycogenolysis

Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen. Glycogenesis is glycogen synthesis, gluconeogenesis makes new glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, and glycolysis breaks glucose down to pyruvate.

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Q302EasyLipids

For a routine fasting lipid profile, the patient is usually asked to fast for about:

Answer: A. 10–12 hours

A 10–12 hour (9–12 h) fast lets chylomicrons from the last meal clear, so triglycerides and calculated LDL are reliable.

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Q303EasyLipids

Which lipoprotein carries dietary (exogenous) triglyceride from the intestine into the blood?

Answer: D. Chylomicrons

Chylomicrons are made by intestinal cells from absorbed dietary fat and carry it via the lymph into the blood. VLDL carries triglyceride made in the liver.

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Q304EasyEnzymes & cardiac markers

Isoenzymes are best defined as:

Answer: D. Different molecular forms of an enzyme that catalyse the same reaction

Isoenzymes are structurally different forms of an enzyme (often from different tissues) that catalyse the same reaction, e.g. CK-MM, CK-MB and CK-BB.

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Q305EasyEndocrinology

Urine and serum pregnancy tests detect which hormone?

Answer: D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

hCG is produced by the trophoblast soon after implantation, and immunoassays for hCG are the basis of pregnancy tests.

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Q306EasyTumor markers & iron studies

CA 19-9 is a tumor marker mainly associated with cancer of the:

Answer: C. Pancreas

CA 19-9 is used mainly for pancreatic (and biliary) cancer monitoring. It is not raised in people who lack the Lewis blood group antigen.

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Q307EasyTDM, toxicology & vitamins

Which drug used for bipolar disorder is routinely monitored by measuring its serum level?

Answer: B. Lithium

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and toxicity (tremor, confusion, arrhythmia) can occur just above it, so serum levels are checked regularly, usually 12 hours after the last dose.

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Q308EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

Which urine specimen is preferred for routine urinalysis because it is the most concentrated?

Answer: C. First morning specimen

The first morning urine has been in the bladder overnight, so it is concentrated and best for detecting substances and formed elements present in small amounts.

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Q309EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

In healthy people, the urine urobilinogen result on a reagent strip is usually:

Answer: B. Present in a small normal amount (about 1 mg/dL or less)

Some urobilinogen formed in the gut is reabsorbed and excreted in urine, so a small amount (up to about 1 mg/dL, 1 EU) is normal. Strips cannot reliably detect its absence.

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Q310EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

Which substances can give a positive reagent strip blood pad?

Answer: C. Intact red cells, free hemoglobin and myoglobin

The blood pad uses the pseudoperoxidase activity of heme, which is present in hemoglobin (free or in red cells) and in myoglobin.

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Q311EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Why is urine pH useful when identifying crystals in urine sediment?

Answer: D. Many crystals form only in acidic or only in alkaline urine

Crystal formation depends on pH; for example, uric acid crystals form in acidic urine and triple phosphate in alkaline urine, so pH helps narrow the identification.

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Q312EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Many squamous epithelial cells in a urine sediment most often indicate:

Answer: C. Contamination from the vagina or distal urethra

Squamous cells line the vagina and distal urethra, so large numbers usually mean the sample was not a proper midstream clean-catch collection.

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Q313EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Many bacteria are seen in a urine that stood unrefrigerated for 6 hours, with no white cells. The bacteria are most likely due to:

Answer: D. Multiplication of contaminating bacteria after collection

Bacteria double rapidly in urine at room temperature, so an old unpreserved sample can show many bacteria without true infection. Urine should be tested within 2 hours or refrigerated.

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Q314EasyCSF

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced mainly by the:

Answer: A. Choroid plexus of the ventricles

Most CSF is secreted by the choroid plexus in the brain ventricles. Arachnoid villi (granulations) reabsorb CSF into the venous sinuses.

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Q315EasyCSF

Normal cerebrospinal fluid looks:

Answer: B. Clear and colourless

Normal CSF is crystal clear and colourless, like water. Cloudiness, blood or yellow colour are abnormal findings.

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Q316EasyCSF

A lumbar puncture in an adult is usually performed between which vertebrae?

Answer: C. L3–L4 or L4–L5

The needle is inserted below the end of the spinal cord (about L1–L2 in adults), usually at L3–L4 or L4–L5, to avoid injuring the cord.

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Q317EasyCSF

Which diluting fluid is used for a manual CSF white cell count because it lyses red cells?

Answer: B. 3% acetic acid

Dilute (3%) acetic acid lyses red cells and makes white cell nuclei easier to see, so WBCs can be counted in a bloody sample. Saline preserves red cells.

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Q318EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

Normal synovial fluid is best described as:

Answer: C. Clear, pale yellow and highly viscous

Normal joint fluid is clear, pale yellow and viscous because of hyaluronic acid. Cloudiness suggests inflammation or infection.

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Q319EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

Fecal occult blood testing is used mainly to screen for:

Answer: C. Colorectal cancer

Colorectal cancers and large polyps bleed intermittently in small amounts, so testing stool for hidden blood is used as a screening test.

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Q320EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

Dark green amniotic fluid most likely indicates the presence of:

Answer: A. Meconium

Meconium (fetal stool) gives amniotic fluid a dark green colour and can indicate fetal distress. Bilirubin gives a yellow colour and blood a red colour.

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