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DHA exam preparation (Dubai)

700 practice MCQs for the DHA medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.

Subject mix: Chemistry 17%, Hematology 16%, Bacteriology 14%, Blood Banking 12%, Immunology & Serology 10%, Parasitology 7%, Laboratory Operations 7%, Urinalysis & Body Fluids 7%, Mycology 5%, Virology 5%

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Q1EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

A patient is group O, RhD-negative. Which red cell unit is fully compatible?

Answer: B. O RhD-negative

Group O plasma has anti-A and anti-B, so only group O cells are ABO-compatible. An RhD-negative recipient should receive RhD-negative cells to avoid anti-D sensitisation.

ID LG-PHY-0058 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q2EasyImmune system principles

Neutrophils engulfing bacteria at a wound within minutes, without prior exposure, illustrates which arm of immunity?

Answer: C. Innate immunity

Phagocytosis by neutrophils is non-specific and needs no previous sensitisation, so it belongs to innate immunity. Adaptive responses depend on antigen-specific lymphocytes and take days to develop.

ID LG-PHY-0146 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q3EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

In an emergency when the recipient's group is unknown, red cells of which ABO/RhD group are given?

Answer: B. Group O RhD-negative

O RhD-negative red cells lack A, B and D antigens, so they are not destroyed by recipient anti-A, anti-B or anti-D. AB patients are the universal plasma donors instead.

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Q4EasyABO system

Which statement about the ABO blood group system is correct?

Answer: C. Group O plasma contains both anti-A and anti-B

Group O red cells lack A and B antigens, and the plasma carries naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B. Group AB has neither antibody and is the universal red-cell recipient.

ID LG-PHY-0315 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q5EasyTransplant & immunodeficiency

HIV infection progressively lowers which lymphocyte population, monitored by flow cytometry?

Answer: B. CD4+ helper T cells

HIV binds CD4 with CCR5 or CXCR4 co-receptors and destroys helper T cells. A CD4 count below 200 cells/uL defines AIDS.

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Q6EasyBiochemistry basics & molecular biology

Methane (MW 16) is a gas at room temperature, while water (MW 18) is a liquid. What mainly accounts for this difference?

Answer: B. Hydrogen bonding between neighbouring water molecules

Each water molecule can hydrogen-bond with up to four neighbours, holding them together as a liquid. Methane has only weak van der Waals forces.

ID LG-CHE-0001 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q7EasyLipids

Triacylglycerols can be stored as anhydrous droplets in adipocytes because they are:

Answer: D. Uncharged and nonpolar

Esterification of all three glycerol hydroxyls removes charged groups, so TAGs are hydrophobic and stored without water, giving about 9 kcal/g.

ID LG-CHE-0039 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q8EasyBiochemistry basics & molecular biology

Non-standard base pairing between codon and anticodon is allowed at which codon position?

Answer: B. Third (3′) position

Crick's wobble hypothesis: the 3′ codon base pairs loosely with the 5′ anticodon base, so one tRNA can read several codons.

ID LG-CHE-0053 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q9EasyLipids

Butter stored too long develops a sour odour as lipases release free fatty acids from triglycerides. This change is called:

Answer: D. Hydrolytic rancidity

Hydrolysis of ester bonds (often microbial lipase) frees volatile short-chain acids such as butyric acid. Oxidative rancidity involves peroxidation of double bonds.

ID LG-CHE-0063 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q10EasyLipids

Prostacyclin (PGI2), which inhibits platelet aggregation, is produced mainly by:

Answer: D. Vascular endothelial cells

Endothelial prostacyclin synthase makes PGI2, which opposes platelet thromboxane A2 to keep vessels patent.

ID LG-CHE-0067 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q11EasyLipids

Which drug reduces prostaglandin formation by irreversibly acetylating cyclooxygenase?

Answer: B. Aspirin

Aspirin acetylates a serine in COX-1 and COX-2. Fluoride inhibits enolase and cyanide cytochrome oxidase.

ID LG-CHE-0069 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q12EasyLipids

The VDRL and RPR tests for syphilis use which phospholipid as antigen?

Answer: B. Cardiolipin

Cardiolipin (diphosphatidylglycerol) is antigenic; antibodies to it (reagin) appear in syphilis and form the basis of non-treponemal tests.

ID LG-CHE-0081 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q13EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Which disaccharide is synthesised by the mammary gland and occurs naturally only in milk?

Answer: C. Lactose

Lactose (galactose β-1,4 glucose) is made by lactose synthase in the lactating breast. Maltose comes from starch digestion, sucrose from plants, and trehalose from fungi and insects.

ID LG-CHE-0111 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q14EasyBiochemistry basics & molecular biology

Breaking down glycogen to carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is an example of:

Answer: C. Catabolism

Catabolic pathways degrade complex molecules and release energy. Anabolism, including gluconeogenesis and other biosynthesis, consumes energy to build molecules.

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Q15EasyElectrolytes & osmolality

In osmosis across a semipermeable membrane, what moves and in which direction?

Answer: B. Water, from the more dilute to the more concentrated solution

Osmosis is net water movement toward higher solute concentration, since solute cannot cross. Solute movement down its gradient is ordinary diffusion.

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Q16EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Which sugar is an aldopentose found in RNA?

Answer: B. Ribose

Ribose has five carbons and an aldehyde group. Erythrulose is a ketotetrose, fructose a ketohexose, and glyceraldehyde an aldotriose.

ID LG-CHE-0170 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q17EasyProteins & electrophoresis

At pH 7.4, which amino acid carries a negatively charged side chain?

Answer: A. Aspartate

Aspartate's side-chain carboxyl (pKa about 3.9) is ionised at physiological pH. Lysine is positive, histidine is mostly uncharged (pKa ~6), and proline's side chain is non-polar.

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Q18EasyProteins & electrophoresis

Which dietary protein has the highest protein efficiency ratio and is often used as the reference protein?

Answer: B. Egg protein

Whole egg protein has an ideal essential amino acid pattern and near-complete digestibility, giving the highest PER and biological value. Milk, meat and fish proteins are high quality but rank slightly lower.

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Q19EasyBiochemistry basics & molecular biology

Which function is carried out chiefly by the Golgi apparatus?

Answer: B. Modifying and sorting glycoproteins for secretion

The Golgi completes glycosylation, packages proteins into vesicles and directs them to their destinations. ATP synthesis is mitochondrial, translation ribosomal, and autophagic digestion lysosomal.

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Q20EasyEnzymes & cardiac markers

An inactive enzyme protein combines with its required coenzyme. The active complex formed is called the:

Answer: A. Holoenzyme

Apoenzyme plus cofactor equals holoenzyme. A zymogen is an inactive precursor activated by cleavage, isoenzymes are different forms of one enzyme, and ribozymes are catalytic RNA.

ID LG-CHE-0196 · Found a mistake? Report it
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