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Basic Pathology: Neoplasia – page 5

120 Basic Pathology MCQs on Neoplasia with answers and explanations.

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Q81MediumNeoplasia

Tumour cells bypass the nearest lymph node and first appear in a more distant node of the chain. This is called:

Answer: D. Skip metastasis

Skip metastases occur when cells travel through lymphatics past proximal nodes to lodge in later ones, so a negative first node does not exclude spread.

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Q82MediumNeoplasia

Which property most reliably distinguishes a neoplasm from a reactive mass such as a granuloma?

Answer: D. Autonomous growth that persists after the stimulus is removed

Neoplasia is defined by unregulated, autonomous proliferation. Necrosis and rapid growth also occur in granulomas and abscesses.

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Q83MediumNeoplasia

A carcinoma arising in the bronchi usually spreads via lymphatics first to which nodes?

Answer: A. Regional bronchial (peribronchial) nodes

Lymphatic spread follows drainage: regional bronchial nodes first, then tracheobronchial and hilar nodes, and later more distant groups.

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Q84MediumNeoplasia

Which pairing of tumour type with its typical route of spread is correct?

Answer: C. Carcinomas by lymphatics; sarcomas by blood

Carcinomas typically metastasise first to lymph nodes, whereas sarcomas favour haematogenous spread, often to lungs.

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Q85MediumNeoplasia

Xeroderma pigmentosum, with extreme sun sensitivity and early skin cancers, is best described as:

Answer: C. An autosomal recessive defect of nucleotide excision repair

XP patients cannot remove UV-induced pyrimidine dimers because nucleotide excision repair genes are defective; inheritance is autosomal recessive.

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Q86MediumNeoplasia

Occupational exposure to ethylene oxide, a sterilising gas, is chiefly associated with which malignancy?

Answer: D. Leukaemia and other lymphohaematopoietic cancers

Ethylene oxide is an IARC group 1 carcinogen linked mainly to leukaemia/lymphoma. Hepatic angiosarcoma follows vinyl chloride; mesothelioma follows asbestos.

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Q87MediumNeoplasia

Which gestational trophoblastic lesion is non-invasive and is the usual benign form of trophoblastic proliferation?

Answer: A. Hydatidiform mole

A complete or partial mole is an abnormal but non-invasive placental proliferation. Choriocarcinoma is malignant; seminoma is a testicular germ cell tumour.

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Q88MediumNeoplasia

A lung nodule consists of disorganised but mature cartilage, bronchial epithelium and fat, all native to the lung. It is a:

Answer: D. Hamartoma

A hamartoma is a disorganised mass of tissues normally found at that site. A choristoma is normal tissue in an abnormal location.

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Q89MediumNeoplasia

Liver metastases from colorectal carcinoma usually reach the liver through the:

Answer: A. Portal venous blood

Haematogenous spread follows venous drainage; bowel tumours drain via the portal vein, so the liver is the first capillary bed encountered.

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Q90MediumNeoplasia

Apart from metastasis, which feature most reliably separates a malignant tumour from a benign one?

Answer: B. Local invasion

Metastasis is the definitive criterion; next comes progressive infiltration and destruction of adjacent tissue. Mitoses occur in benign tumours too.

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Q91MediumNeoplasia

A uterine leiomyoma is sharply separated from the myometrium only by a rim of compressed normal muscle. This means it:

Answer: D. Lacks a true capsule but is well circumscribed

Some benign tumours, like leiomyomas, are demarcated by compressed tissue (a pseudocapsule) rather than a true capsule, yet do not invade.

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Q92MediumNeoplasia

A medulloblastoma produces 'drop metastases' along the spinal canal. This dissemination occurs through:

Answer: D. Seeding via cerebrospinal fluid

Tumours entering the ventricles or subarachnoid space shed cells that implant along CSF pathways, a form of cavity seeding.

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Q93MediumNeoplasia

The weight loss, muscle wasting, anorexia and weakness of advanced cancer (cachexia) are mainly caused by:

Answer: B. Cytokines such as TNF and IL-6

Cachexia is driven by cytokines (TNF, IL-1, IL-6) and tumour factors that increase catabolism, not simply by the tumour's caloric demands.

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Q94MediumNeoplasia

Which is NOT a feature of anaplastic tumour cells?

Answer: A. Normal-appearing (typical) mitotic figures only

Anaplastic cells show pleomorphism, hyperchromatic nuclei, loss of polarity and atypical mitoses. Exclusively typical mitoses do not indicate anaplasia.

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Q95MediumNeoplasia

Cancer cells avoid replicative senescence and become immortal mainly through:

Answer: B. Reactivation of telomerase

Limitless replicative potential results from telomerase activity that maintains telomere length, preventing senescence.

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Q96MediumNeoplasia

The word 'tumour' originally described which feature?

Answer: A. Swelling, as seen in inflammation

Tumour once meant any swelling (a cardinal sign of inflammation); today it is used as a synonym for neoplasm.

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Q97MediumNeoplasia

Which property is shared by benign and malignant neoplasms and therefore does NOT help tell them apart?

Answer: A. Monoclonal origin of the tumour cells

Both benign and malignant tumours are clonal proliferations. Differentiation/anaplasia, invasion and metastasis are the classic distinguishing criteria.

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Q98MediumNeoplasia

Seminoma is a malignant tumour arising from which cells of the testis?

Answer: C. Germ cells of the seminiferous tubules

Seminoma is the commonest testicular germ cell tumour. Leydig and Sertoli cells give rise to sex cord-stromal tumours.

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Q99MediumNeoplasia

What mainly distinguishes lymphoma from leukaemia?

Answer: D. Lymphomas form tissue masses; leukaemias involve marrow and blood

Both are malignant haematolymphoid neoplasms. Lymphomas present as nodal or extranodal masses; leukaemias widely involve marrow and circulating blood.

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Q100MediumNeoplasia

The terms differentiation and anaplasia describe which component of a tumour?

Answer: C. Neoplastic parenchymal cells

Differentiation refers to how closely the neoplastic parenchyma resembles its normal counterpart; stroma is non-neoplastic.

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