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DOH exam preparation (Abu Dhabi) – page 15

700 practice MCQs for the DOH medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.

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Q281EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

The minor crossmatch, no longer routinely performed, tests:

Answer: A. Patient red cells against donor plasma

The minor crossmatch detects donor antibodies against the patient's red cells. It was dropped because donor plasma is screened for unexpected antibodies.

ID MG-BBK-0442 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q282EasyDonor selection & processing

What is the main purpose of the ISBT 128 labeling system?

Answer: A. Unique, internationally standard identification of each donation and product

ISBT 128 gives each donation a globally unique identification number and standard codes for product type, ABO/D and expiry. This supports traceability from donor to recipient.

ID MG-BBK-0460 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q283EasyDonor selection & processing

During donation, a swelling appears at the needle site. What is the correct action?

Answer: B. Stop, remove the needle, apply pressure and a cold pack

A hematoma means blood is leaking into tissues. The collection is stopped, the needle removed, and firm pressure with a cold pack applied.

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Q284EasyHDFN

At the first prenatal visit, which blood bank tests are routinely performed on every pregnant woman?

Answer: B. ABO group, D type and antibody screen

All pregnant women should have ABO, D and an antibody screen early in pregnancy to detect clinically significant antibodies and identify RhIG candidates.

ID MG-BBK-0487 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q285EasyOther blood group systems

Diego antigens are carried on:

Answer: A. Band 3 (anion exchanger 1)

Diego antigens, including Dia/Dib and Wra/Wrb, are on band 3. Aquaporin-1 carries Colton antigens.

ID MG-BBK-0501 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q286EasyOther blood group systems

Anti-Vel is clinically important because it:

Answer: C. Can bind complement and cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions

Vel is a high-prevalence antigen; anti-Vel is often IgM and IgG, binds complement and can cause severe intravascular hemolysis.

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Q287EasyOther blood group systems

Which group of antibodies is usually IgM, reacts best at room temperature or below, and is rarely clinically significant?

Answer: A. Anti-Lea, anti-P1, anti-M

Lewis, P1 and M antibodies are usually cold-reactive IgM. Kell, Duffy, Kidd, Rh and S/s/U antibodies are usually IgG and significant.

ID MG-BBK-0511 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q288EasyRh system

A donor types D−, C−, c+, E−, e+. The genotype is:

Answer: A. rr (dce/dce)

No D, C or E is present, so both haplotypes must be dce. r′ would add C and r″ would add E.

ID MG-BBK-0530 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q289EasyHematology methods & instruments

The blue laser used in most clinical flow cytometers to excite FITC and PE emits light at about:

Answer: B. 488 nm

A 488 nm blue laser excites FITC and PE and is standard in clinical instruments. A 633–640 nm red laser is used for dyes such as APC.

ID MG-HEM-0332 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q290EasyHemolytic anemias & hemoglobinopathies

Children with sickle cell anemia are given penicillin prophylaxis mainly because functional asplenia greatly raises the risk of sepsis from:

Answer: C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Repeated splenic infarction causes loss of splenic function, and the spleen is key for clearing encapsulated bacteria such as S. pneumoniae. The other organisms are not linked specifically to asplenia.

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Q291EasyHemolytic anemias & hemoglobinopathies

Both parents have beta-thalassemia trait. What is the chance that each pregnancy will result in a child with beta-thalassemia major?

Answer: B. 25%

Beta-thalassemia is autosomal recessive. Two carriers have a 1 in 4 chance of an affected child, 1 in 2 of a carrier and 1 in 4 of an unaffected non-carrier child.

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Q292EasyPlatelets

The normal life span of platelets in the circulation is about:

Answer: B. 7–10 days

Platelets survive about 7–10 days and are then removed mainly by the spleen and liver. 120 days is the red cell life span.

ID MG-HEM-0416 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q293EasyRBC indices & anemias

If dietary intake stops completely, body stores usually last about:

Answer: B. B12: several years; folate: about 3–4 months

The liver holds several milligrams of B12, enough for years, whereas folate stores last only a few months. So folate deficiency develops much faster than dietary B12 deficiency.

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Q294EasyRBC morphology & inclusions

Helmet cells and triangular red cells with sharp angles seen in a patient with DIC are classified as:

Answer: A. Schistocytes

Helmet cells and triangular forms are types of red cell fragments (schistocytes), formed when cells are cut by fibrin strands or damaged surfaces. Acanthocytes are whole cells with irregular spicules.

ID MG-HEM-0476 · Found a mistake? Report it
Q295EasyWBC disorders & leukemias

A man with known CLL for 8 years develops fever, weight loss, a rapidly growing lymph node and very high LDH. The most likely event is:

Answer: C. Richter transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Richter transformation is the change of CLL into an aggressive lymphoma, usually DLBCL, with B symptoms, rapidly enlarging nodes and high LDH. The other disorders are not typical outcomes of CLL.

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Q296EasyWBC disorders & leukemias

A dehydrated patient has hematocrit 0.55 L/L, normal red cell mass, normal EPO and no mutation. The best term is:

Answer: C. Relative (apparent) polycythemia

Loss of plasma volume raises the hematocrit without increasing red cell mass; correcting dehydration normalizes it. Secondary polycythemia has a true rise in red cell mass with high EPO.

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Q297EasyWBC disorders & leukemias

Flow cytometry shows CD19+ B cells with kappa:lambda ratio of 12:1. This most suggests:

Answer: C. A monoclonal B-cell population

Normal B cells show a kappa:lambda ratio of about 1–2:1 (roughly 0.5–3); a strongly skewed ratio indicates light chain restriction and clonality. T-cell clonality is not assessed by light chains.

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Q298EasyWBC morphology & differential

An analyzer flags 'blasts?' on a sample with a normal-looking scatter plot. According to good practice, the technologist should:

Answer: C. Review a stained smear before releasing the differential

Suspect flags have limited specificity, so a smear review confirms or excludes abnormal cells. Rerunning or diluting does not answer the morphologic question.

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Q299EasyWBC morphology & differential

A patient starting clozapine is followed with regular absolute neutrophil counts because this drug can cause:

Answer: A. Agranulocytosis

Clozapine can cause sudden, severe neutropenia (agranulocytosis), so ANC monitoring is required. It is a classic example of drug-induced neutropenia.

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Q300EasyWBC morphology & differential

A healthy woman's blood smear shows about 1–2% eosinophils and less than 1% basophils. These values are:

Answer: B. Within normal limits

Normal adult differentials include about 1–5% eosinophils and 0–1% basophils. No abnormality is present.

ID MG-HEM-0591 · Found a mistake? Report it
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