DOH exam preparation (Abu Dhabi) – page 13
700 practice MCQs for the DOH medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.
What is the function of adenine in CPDA-1?
Adenine allows red cells to resynthesize ATP, improving post-transfusion survival and extending storage. Citrate, not adenine, prevents clotting by binding calcium.
Red blood cell units must be stored at:
Red cells are stored refrigerated at 1–6 °C. The wider 1–10 °C range applies to transport, not storage.
Platelets have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among blood components mainly because they are:
Storage at 20–24 °C allows skin bacteria to multiply, unlike refrigerated red cells or frozen plasma.
Blood is released before pretransfusion testing is complete. Which record is required?
Emergency release requires the requesting physician to document that the clinical situation justified transfusion before testing was finished. Testing is completed afterwards and abnormalities reported at once.
What is the minimum body weight for a donor to give a standard whole blood donation of about 500 mL?
A standard 450–500 mL collection is limited to donors weighing at least 50 kg (110 lb). Lighter donors need a reduced-volume collection with less anticoagulant.
Which recently given vaccine does NOT require donor deferral in a donor who feels well?
Toxoids and inactivated vaccines do not cause deferral in symptom-free donors. Live attenuated vaccines such as varicella, oral typhoid and yellow fever require a temporary deferral of 2–4 weeks.
Lewis antigens on red cells are:
Lewis antigens are made in tissues and taken up passively onto red cells from plasma. This is why the Lewis type can change, e.g. in pregnancy. Non-secretors with a Le gene still express Lea.
A D-negative woman received antenatal RhIG at 28 weeks. She now delivers a D-positive baby. What is needed?
Antenatal RhIG does not replace the postpartum dose. After a D-positive birth she needs a fetomaternal hemorrhage screen and at least one dose.
A patient with thalassemia major receives regular red cell transfusions. Which long-term complication is monitored with serum ferritin?
Each red cell unit contains about 200–250 mg of iron, which the body cannot excrete. Ferritin is used to monitor iron load and guide chelation therapy.
Which mechanism explains the severity of an ABO-incompatible acute hemolytic reaction?
Anti-A and anti-B are mainly IgM and activate complement through C9, lysing cells in the circulation. This can lead to shock, DIC and acute kidney injury.
When reading a microhematocrit, including the buffy coat in the red cell column will:
Only the packed red cell column should be read; the buffy coat of white cells and platelets adds to the reading. A falsely high Hct would lower the calculated MCHC, not raise it.
G6PD deficiency is inherited as which pattern?
The G6PD gene lies on the X chromosome, so males are usually affected and females are carriers, although some heterozygous females are affected due to lyonization. Pyruvate kinase deficiency, not G6PD deficiency, is autosomal recessive.
A 4-year-old develops acute kidney injury, thrombocytopenia and schistocytes one week after bloody diarrhea. The most likely cause is:
Typical hemolytic uremic syndrome follows infection with Shiga toxin-producing E. coli such as O157:H7, with toxin damaging renal endothelium. C. difficile causes colitis but not classic HUS.
Hb Bart's hydrops fetalis results from which alpha-globin genotype?
With no functional alpha genes, the fetus makes only gamma-4 tetramers (Hb Bart's), which cannot deliver oxygen, leading to hydrops. The --/-α genotype causes HbH disease, which is compatible with life.
An aPTT reagent contains which components added to citrated plasma?
The aPTT uses phospholipid (partial thromboplastin) plus an activator such as silica, kaolin or ellagic acid, then calcium. Tissue factor is the PT reagent.
Hemoglobin is 12.0 g/dL and hematocrit is 36%. What is the MCHC?
MCHC (g/dL) = Hb (g/dL) × 100 ÷ Hct (%) = 1200 ÷ 36 = 33.3 g/dL (333 g/L), which is within the normal range.
In a normal red cell on a well-made smear, the central pallor occupies about:
Normal discocytes show central pallor of about one third of the diameter. Pallor larger than this indicates hypochromia, and a thin rim of hemoglobin is seen in severe hypochromia.
A Caribbean-born adult has hypercalcemia, skin lesions and circulating lymphocytes with multilobed 'flower-shaped' nuclei. The associated virus is:
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is caused by HTLV-1 and shows CD4+ 'flower cells' and hypercalcemia. EBV is linked to Burkitt and Hodgkin lymphoma.
A large cell has a folded, horseshoe-shaped nucleus with lacy chromatin and grey-blue 'ground-glass' cytoplasm with fine granules and vacuoles. It is most likely a:
Monocytes have folded nuclei, lacy chromatin and grey-blue cytoplasm with fine azurophilic dust and vacuoles. Reactive lymphocytes have deeper blue cytoplasm and denser chromatin.
In an immunoprecipitation reaction, antigen excess that leads to small soluble complexes and a false-low result is called:
Postzone is antigen excess; prozone is antibody excess. Maximum lattice formation and precipitation occur at the zone of equivalence.