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SCFHS exam preparation (Saudi Arabia) – page 14

749 practice MCQs for the SCFHS medical laboratory exam. Level: Intermediate.

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Q261EasyAntibody screen & identification

The first stage of hemagglutination, in which antibody binds to red cell antigen, is called:

Answer: C. Sensitization

Agglutination has two stages: sensitization (antibody attaches to antigen) and lattice formation (antibody bridges cells to form visible clumps).

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Q262EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

A crossmatch is considered compatible when:

Answer: C. There is no agglutination or hemolysis in any phase

Compatible means no agglutination and no hemolysis at any phase tested. Hemolysis counts as a positive (incompatible) reaction.

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Q263EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

Donor red cells for crossmatching are usually taken from:

Answer: A. An integrally attached segment of the unit's tubing

Segments attached to the bag contain the same donor blood and can be removed without opening the unit.

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Q264EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

During a transfusion, the patient must be watched most closely during the first:

Answer: C. 15 minutes

Severe reactions such as acute hemolysis and anaphylaxis usually start early, so vital signs are checked and the patient observed closely in the first 15 minutes.

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Q265EasyBlood components & storage

Blood components such as red cells, plasma and platelets are separated from whole blood mainly by:

Answer: A. Centrifugation, which separates them by density

Centrifuging whole blood separates red cells, platelets and plasma into layers according to their density and size.

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Q266EasyBlood components & storage

The main purpose of a red cell transfusion is to:

Answer: C. Increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Red cells are given to improve oxygen delivery in symptomatic anemia or blood loss. Plasma, platelets and albumin are used for the other needs.

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Q267EasyBlood components & storage

Bleeding in a patient with severe hemophilia A is best treated with:

Answer: D. Factor VIII concentrate

Hemophilia A is factor VIII deficiency, so bleeding is treated with factor VIII concentrate (recombinant or plasma-derived).

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Q268EasyBlood components & storage

In CPD anticoagulant-preservative, sodium phosphate acts mainly as a:

Answer: A. Buffer that helps maintain pH and 2,3-DPG

Phosphate buffers the acid produced during storage, which helps preserve 2,3-DPG. Citrate binds calcium and dextrose supplies energy.

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Q269EasyDonor selection & processing

After donating whole blood, a donor should be advised to:

Answer: D. Drink extra fluids and avoid strenuous activity for the rest of the day

Extra fluids help restore blood volume. Avoiding heavy exertion lowers the risk of fainting and of bleeding at the needle site.

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Q270EasyDonor selection & processing

The donor health questionnaire is mainly used to:

Answer: C. Protect both donor and recipient by identifying risks before donation

The questionnaire finds donors who could be harmed by donating or whose blood could harm a recipient, for example through recent risk behavior or illness.

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Q271EasyTransfusion reactions

Systematic monitoring and reporting of adverse events linked to transfusion is called:

Answer: B. Hemovigilance

Hemovigilance covers the whole transfusion chain, from donor to recipient, to find and prevent adverse events. Look-back is tracing earlier recipients of a donor later found infected.

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Q272EasyHDFN

Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is caused by:

Answer: C. Maternal IgG antibodies crossing the placenta and destroying fetal red cells

In HDFN, maternal IgG against a fetal red cell antigen (such as D) crosses the placenta and coats fetal red cells, which are then destroyed.

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Q273EasyHDFN

HDFN was historically called 'erythroblastosis fetalis' because:

Answer: A. Many nucleated red cells appear in the fetal blood

The anemic fetus releases large numbers of erythroblasts (nucleated red cells) into its circulation.

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Q274EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Before a fasting plasma glucose test, an adult should have had no caloric intake for at least how long?

Answer: A. 8 hours

ADA defines fasting as no caloric intake for at least 8 hours. Shorter fasts can give falsely high results, and a 24-hour fast is not required.

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Q275EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Lactose, the sugar in milk, is made of which two monosaccharides?

Answer: C. Glucose and galactose

Lactose is a disaccharide of glucose and galactose. Glucose plus fructose forms sucrose, and two glucose units form maltose.

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Q276EasyCarbohydrates & diabetes

Which specimen is used to measure HbA1c?

Answer: D. EDTA whole blood

HbA1c is measured in red cells, so anticoagulated whole blood (usually EDTA) is used. Serum and separated plasma contain no red cells.

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Q277EasyProteins & electrophoresis

The approximate reference interval for total serum protein in adults is:

Answer: B. 6.0–8.0 g/dL (60–80 g/L)

Adult total serum protein is roughly 6–8 g/dL (60–80 g/L), with exact limits varying slightly between laboratories. Albumin alone is about 3.5–5.0 g/dL.

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Q278EasyProteins & electrophoresis

Bence Jones protein in urine consists of:

Answer: C. Free monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains

Bence Jones proteins are free monoclonal kappa or lambda light chains, small enough to pass the glomerulus; they are typical of multiple myeloma.

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Q279EasyEnzymes & cardiac markers

Enzymes are biological catalysts made mainly of:

Answer: C. Protein

Almost all enzymes are proteins. They speed reactions without being consumed. (A few RNA catalysts exist, but they are exceptions.)

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Q280EasyEnzymes & cardiac markers

The CK-MB isoenzyme is found in its highest proportion in which tissue?

Answer: B. Heart muscle

Cardiac muscle contains the highest proportion of CK-MB (roughly 20–30% of its CK), which is why CK-MB was used as a marker of myocardial infarction.

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