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MOH exam preparation (UAE) – page 17

700 practice MCQs for the MOH medical laboratory exam. Level: Basic to intermediate.

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Q321EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

A refrigerated alkaline urine has a heavy white precipitate. Microscopy shows granular amorphous material. This precipitate will dissolve after adding:

Answer: A. Dilute acetic acid

White amorphous phosphates form in alkaline urine and dissolve in dilute acid. Warming dissolves amorphous urates (pink, acidic urine), not phosphates.

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Q322EasyABO system

Who discovered the ABO blood group system?

Answer: C. Karl Landsteiner

Karl Landsteiner described the ABO groups in 1900–1901 and later received the Nobel Prize. Coombs developed the antiglobulin test.

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Q323EasyABO system

Red cells react with both anti-A and anti-B, and the plasma reacts with neither A1 nor B reagent cells. The ABO group is:

Answer: D. AB

Both antigens on the cells and no anti-A or anti-B in plasma is the pattern of group AB, and forward and reverse results agree.

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Q324EasyRh system

The Rh blood group system was named after:

Answer: A. Rhesus monkeys, whose red cells were used in early experiments

The name comes from rhesus monkeys. Antibodies raised against their red cells by Landsteiner and Wiener reacted with most human red cells.

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Q325EasyRh system

Anti-D in a D-negative person usually arises after:

Answer: D. Exposure to D-positive red cells through transfusion or pregnancy

Anti-D is an immune antibody formed only after exposure to D-positive red cells, unlike naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B.

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Q326EasyOther blood group systems

Most blood group alleles, such as Jka and Jkb or Fya and Fyb, are expressed:

Answer: D. Codominantly, so both antigens appear in heterozygotes

Blood group alleles are codominant. A Jk(a+b+) person has inherited both alleles and expresses both antigens.

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Q327EasyCrossmatch & compatibility

Before a pretransfusion blood sample is collected, the patient must be identified using at least:

Answer: B. Two independent identifiers, such as full name and hospital ID number

Positive patient identification with at least two identifiers prevents wrong-blood-in-tube errors. Bed numbers are never acceptable identifiers.

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Q328EasyDonor selection & processing

The 'window period' of an infection in blood donors is the time when:

Answer: B. The donor is infectious but screening tests are still negative

Early after infection, the agent may be in the blood before antibodies or antigens reach detectable levels. NAT shortens this window but does not remove it.

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Q329EasyDonor selection & processing

Until all donor screening tests are completed and negative, collected units are kept:

Answer: D. In quarantine, separate from units available for issue

Untested units are quarantined so they cannot be issued by mistake. They are released only after all mandatory tests are negative and labeling is complete.

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Q330EasyTransfusion reactions

Acute transfusion reactions are those that occur within:

Answer: D. 24 hours of transfusion

Reactions within 24 hours are called acute. Those appearing later (such as delayed hemolysis or TA-GVHD) are called delayed.

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Q331EasyTransfusion reactions

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions are best reduced by using:

Answer: C. Leukocyte-reduced components

Most febrile reactions are caused by donor white cells or the cytokines they release during storage. Leukoreduction before storage greatly reduces them, while irradiation does not.

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Q332EasyTransfusion reactions

Which is an infectious complication of transfusion?

Answer: B. Hepatitis C transmission

Hepatitis C is a transfusion-transmitted infection, which donor screening aims to prevent. The other options are non-infectious reactions.

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Q333EasyUrine chemical (dipstick)

How should urine reagent strips be stored?

Answer: D. In the original tightly capped container at room temperature, away from moisture and light

Moisture, light, heat and volatile chemicals damage the reagent pads. Strips are kept in their capped container with desiccant and are not refrigerated or frozen.

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Q334EasyUrine microscopy (casts, crystals)

Transitional (urothelial) epithelial cells in urine come from which part of the urinary tract?

Answer: A. Renal pelvis, ureters, bladder and upper urethra

Urothelium lines the renal pelvis, ureters, bladder and upper urethra. Renal tubular cells come from the tubules and squamous cells from the vagina and distal urethra.

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Q335EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is called:

Answer: D. Ascites

Ascites is excess peritoneal fluid; it is collected by paracentesis. Pleural and pericardial effusions are fluid around the lungs and heart.

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Q336EasyOther body fluids (synovial, serous, semen, amniotic, fecal)

Most of the volume of semen is contributed by the:

Answer: B. Seminal vesicles

The seminal vesicles provide about 60–70% of the ejaculate volume, including fructose. The prostate adds about 20–30%; sperm from the testes form only a small part.

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Q337EasyMycology

Amphotericin B and the azole antifungals act on which component that is found in fungal cell membranes but not in human ones?

Answer: A. Ergosterol

Ergosterol is the main fungal membrane sterol; amphotericin binds it and azoles block its synthesis.

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Q338EasyMycology

A 'fungus ball' growing inside an old tuberculous lung cavity is usually caused by:

Answer: C. Aspergillus

Aspergillus fumigatus commonly colonises existing lung cavities, forming an aspergilloma.

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Q339EasyMycology

Tinea pedis is commonly known as:

Answer: D. Athlete's foot

Tinea pedis is dermatophyte infection of the feet; jock itch is tinea cruris and Madura foot is mycetoma.

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Q340EasyMycology

Dermatophytes infect which tissues?

Answer: A. Keratinised tissues: skin, hair and nails

Dermatophytes use keratin, so they infect only the outer skin, hair and nails.

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